Despite the lack of correct punctuation it still is a questioning statement, I'm simply not sure how it relates to the general topic even as a plain statement.
Actually there are a number of species with only one sex that produce young, most of them are lizards though, rather than mammals but I think he was using straight there in the sense of "lacking a cartilage fold in the outer ears" rather than "heterosexual".
EDIT: Sharks and some birds plus a host of invertebrate species are also capable of parthenogenic reproduction but mammals require a lot of interference to instigate that. That aside I'm still not clear on what Lembach was trying to get across with his question/statement since it's fairly obvious variants in a breed can occur, for example my dogs are Papillons but a variant (an atavistic one as it happens) exists where in the ears are not erect and are instead the more familiar ones seen in most other breeds of spaniel. Indeed most of the toy spaniels you'll see in paintings of the 16th-18th century are the breed that would become the Papillon.