The UNDEAD VAMPIRE isn't sterile, why would she be.
I'm about to put more thought into this than Stephanie Meyer did, but roll with me.
We could "argue" the "venom" in vampires basically is a place-holder for all bodily fluids. It "lubricates" their stone bodies so, in a way, it acts as "blood" carrying the nutrients and such they get from sucking blood from humans (or animals as the "vegetarians" do) to all parts of their bodies, it acts as a literal venom infecting others whom they bite and it acts as, ahem, genetic material.
Vampires we could also liken to being a different "species" -I believe some Twilight "extended universe"/author comments supports this- more than they are the terrors of myth and lore we're all familiar with. They're closer to being like the mutants in "X-Men" than they are undead demons of death.
Now in real-world genetics when ever you mix two species of the same genus you create a hybrid and most of the time this hybrid is sterile. (This is one of the ways seedless fruits are made.) So that's the rationale I'm going with, Bella (was) a human and Edward was a vampire. Both the same genus (Homo) but different species (-sapien and -lamia) they can create offspring but that offspring being a hybrid of two different species is going to be born sterile.